Monday, October 5, 2009

Karra, Four4s

The homework today was to find out how (4÷4) + (4÷4) =2 and 4/4 +4/4=2 are the same.

The reason why I think they are the same is because in the fraction 4/4 and I think of 4÷4 which equals one, and if you add another 4÷4 it will equal 2.

For example,

2 ÷ 2 = 1 chocolate bars2/2 pieces of a chocolate bar would equal one whole chocolate bar, since there is only 2 pieces. In a whole chocolate bar there would be more than 2 pieces of chocolate.I think they are the same because they are both division. You can do both ways and your answer would still be the same.

I’m probably wrong (: LEAVE A COMMENT!!

4 comments:

  1. Nice job, I liked how you explained it :D, with the chocolate bars :P.

    ReplyDelete
  2. GOOD JOB KARRA!

    I liked how you gave examples, they really helped to explain what you were saying. It makes sense, I don't think it's wrong.

    Again, GOOD JOB!

    ~Laura :)

    ReplyDelete
  3. good job karra, nice detail, but you could have used colour, a picture, and not said "i am probably wrong" because it might influence the reader into thinking that it IS wrong i dont think its wrong though

    ReplyDelete
  4. karra i don't think it's wrong." 2 ÷ 2 = 1 chocolate bars2/2 pieces of a chocolate bar would equal one whole chocolate bar "... that' right..you could add a picture or a diagram and show that they are the same

    ReplyDelete

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